[UA] Re:Re[2]: [UA]

[Nick Wedig]

>All you need is one instance where what was observed empirically
>_didn't_ serve as a predictor for the future.

Which only disproves it for that particular instance.  For example, what was observed empirically about the state of the Roman empire in 3 AD (that the Roman empire existed) didn't hold for the future, at least not all of it.  So we've shown that the axiom doesn't work on the social sciences in a naive way (more complex interpetations are possible).  Which doesn't tell us anything about physics or any science other than history or sociology.

To disprove the theory in general would require showing it false for every possible science, which is more than just for every science that exists, and so pretty much impossible.

Mr. teapot
pretty much impossible

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